Can somebody with a legal background explain to me how "Voter ID" laws are "unconstitutional" yet "gun control" is "constitutional"?
If the states haven't the authority to institute laws that regulate a person's ability to vote, then how is it reasonable for states to regulate a person's 2nd Amendment right?
This has been bugging me for a while, now. It is entirely irrational to say that one is lawful, while the other is not.
If the states haven't the authority to institute laws that regulate a person's ability to vote, then how is it reasonable for states to regulate a person's 2nd Amendment right?
This has been bugging me for a while, now. It is entirely irrational to say that one is lawful, while the other is not.