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Hmmm, I always seem to get in trouble with thought experiments, but here goes:

Suppose I bought a gun last year from a private party for cash. Suppose I sold it after this bill passes to my neighbor for cash. How could anyone prove I didn't sell it to him before the bill became law?

Suppose I bought the gun last year through a dealer with a background check. Suppose I sold it after this bill passes to my neighbor for cash. Same result. How could anyone prove I didn't sell it to him before bill became law?

In both of these instances I'd have to be careful NOT to advertise the firearm for sale in a public forum.

So it appears that (as long as I don't advertise on a public forum after the effective date of the law) the only way this law becomes enforceable is if we're dealing with a gun that the seller acquired AFTER this bill became a law.

Where am I going wrong here?
 
hypothetically: "yep, i definately sold this gun before my rights were infringed by the new law. *wink wink*no, sorry, i didnt want to make a bill of sale as it was dont required at the time"
 

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