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That still leaves the 40% in the middle?Just heard on CNBC that nearly 2/3rds of consumer spending in the US is being done by the top 40% of earners. The bottom 20% only account for 9% of consumer spending.
"Nearly 2/3rds" isn't a simple %.
If bottom 20% of earners =spent 9%, that means 80% earners = spent 91%;
So if top 40% earners =spent 55-60% (more than half to almost 2/3rds if not 66.67% ); then the remaining 40% should account for 30-36%, give or take?
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