Hello Friends, As Christmas approaches, a thought crossed my mind. If I wanted to buy a loved one a (new) firearm as a gift, would this be considered a strawman purchase? In my mind I can see how this could be construed as such: I am entering a store and buying a firearm with the express intent to deliver it to another person. On the other hand, I'm not purchasing it "for" another person; "for" implying that the other person gave me the money to buy a gun for them. In one way, the gun is "for" me to give to another person. This is purely a philosophical question. We all know that reality and pragmatism would dictate that this thought is really not an issue; too many loopholes. We all know that giving a gun as a gift is not illegal, so one point of minutiae that I'm curious about is if there is a length of time between purchase/ownership to gift-giving that would discount the idea of strawman purchases. Shoot away fellas.