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Murdock v. Pennsylvania was found to violate the first amendment because the freedom of expression (of religion) was blocked by a prerequisite, could this be translated to the second amendment with Washington's permit to purchase bills being introduced?
 
I'm not sure I understand. Murdock v Pennsylvania looks like a case from 1943 which essentially ruled that taxing salesmen on the selling of religious goods by a state is unconstitutional.
 

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