I almost posted this in the TnT section but this is really more of a legal question. Recently in the news a man brutally attacked a person for no reason at all and broke his nose and appeared to knock him out in the video provided. In the following story (see link) the question I have is what are the legal ramifications if the victim had shot the suspect in self defense before the suspect could attack? You would have an unarmed dead attacker and an untouched "victim"... how would that play out? Before you answer that read on to the 'big' question...
to elaborate, IMO, the suspect clearly had violent intentions (based on what little info the story provides) is that opinion enough to use deadly force? According to the article the suspect "faces second-degree felony assault", under ORS 161.219 the victim can lawfully use deadly force in self defense. The big question however is where is the fine line between "just" a physical confrontation and a felony attack, or is there? ...and how to identify that?
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to elaborate, IMO, the suspect clearly had violent intentions (based on what little info the story provides) is that opinion enough to use deadly force? According to the article the suspect "faces second-degree felony assault", under ORS 161.219 the victim can lawfully use deadly force in self defense. The big question however is where is the fine line between "just" a physical confrontation and a felony attack, or is there? ...and how to identify that?
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