Maybe this has been talked about before, but in what research i've done, I couldn't find any other topics. I'm cherry picking specifically this part of the 2A for my point ", the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed." Note that it says 'of the people' and not 'of law abiding citizens'. Because it specifically says "people" should this mean all people, including criminals? Do you think by allowing the limitation of the 2A in that way, (only law abiding citizens) they got a 'foot in the door' to allow even further "reasonable restrictions of the right"? Was that not infringement from the start? Just something I was wondering the other day and wanted to toss it out there for some constructive discussion.